The results of a meta-analysis that is discussed in your text find that people with comorbid schizophrenia and substance use disorders have fewer negative symptoms than those with a schizophrenia-only diagnosis
Discuss the two alternate interpretations that may explain these findings as well as what researchers can do to clarify this issue.
What will be an ideal response?
The results of the meta-analysis described in the text can be explained by two competing interpretations. One interpretation is that people diagnosed with schizophrenia use alcohol/drugs as a coping mechanism to alleviate the presence/intensity of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. This interpretation lends credence to the self-medication hypothesis. The other interpretation is that people who do not have substance abuse issues already exhibit few/less intense negative symptoms, and therefore they don't require alcohol/drugs to manage their symptoms.
It is difficult to conclusively state which interpretation is correct because the design of the meta-analysis is cross-sectional and correlational. In order to remedy the issue, further research studies should employ experimental and longitudinal designs.
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Pribram viewed personality as a biological hologram, while Pinker emphasized emphasized
A) social learning theory. B) social cognitive neuroscience. C) computational principles. D) chaos/complexity theory.
In the general activation syndrome (GAS), described by Selye, during the exhaustion stage:
a. the stress reaction is most adaptive b. the stress reaction becomes more and more maladaptive c. the stressor has been successfully dealt with, and arousal levels return to normal d. the stressor has been successfully dealt with, but arousal levels remain high