Which of the following BEST explains why positive pressure ventilation is the correct management step for a patient with flail segment?
A) The positive pressure limits any movement of the thorax, thus allowing only the unaffected side to be ventilated.
B) The positive pressure accentuates movement of the thorax inward, reducing the movement of the fracture site and moving the flail segment with the chest.
C) The positive pressure permanently inflates the flail segment in order to maximize oxygenation.
D) The positive pressure displaces the thorax outward, reducing the movement of the fracture site and moving the flail segment with the chest.
D
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You notice that your partner routinely only takes one set of vitals when treating and transporting patients. When asked, he states that he only gets baseline vitals since they are most important as they provide information related to the patient's clinical status at the time of the EMS call. How would you respond?
A) "Examining several sets of vital signs can indicate the effectiveness of your treatment." B) "You must at least get a pulse rate every 15 minutes since this is the most important vital sign." C) "Comparing several sets of vital signs is the only way you will know if the patient is improving or deteriorating." D) "You must get at least two sets of vital signs because that is what the national standard calls for."
Assessment of a 4-year-old reveals him to be unresponsive with no spontaneous respirations or pulse. Your immediate action would be to:
A) attach the automated external defibrillator. B) transfer to stretcher and immediately transport. C) begin rescue breathing at 20 per minute. D) start chest compressions.