Radiographs should be thoroughly interpreted with the patient present so that a clinical examination can contribute to a diagnosis

A 69-year-old male called 911 because of the sudden onset of pain and numbness to his left leg. He states that he has a history of blood clots that form in the leg and the pain feels exactly as it did the last time that this occurred. He denies any trauma to the extremity. You perform the primary assessment and find him to be alert and oriented with no life-threatening conditions to the airway,

breathing, or circulation. When performing the secondary assessment on this patient, which one of the following is most appropriate? A) Rapid head-to-toe exam B) Immediate transport C) Placement of a nasal airway D) Physical exam of the leg

Which of the following is characteristic of medial epicondylosis?

A) inflammation in the tendons of the flexor-pronator muscles at the elbow B) microtears in the tendons of the flexor-pronator muscles at the elbow C) fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus at the elbow D) muscle sprain in the biceps brachii