A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. When he asks what the most likely cause of this disease is, what is the nurse's best response?
a. Ineffective iron uptake and abnormal he-moglobin production
b. Misshapen erythrocytes with low hemo-globin
c. Decreased levels of tissue iron with meg-aloblastic erythrocytes
d. Premature erythrocyte destruction and erythropoietin deficiency
ANS: A
Sideroblastic anemia is due to ineffective iron uptake and hemoglobin production. Erythrocytes are neither misshapen, premature, nor destroyed in sideroblastic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia is not associated with decreased levels of tissue iron with megaloblastic erthrocytes.
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