A 32-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus underwent biopsy of the liver for which an anesthesiologist provided anesthesia services. Report code _____

Which of the following BEST explains why positive pressure ventilation is the correct management step for a patient with flail segment?

A) The positive pressure limits any movement of the thorax, thus allowing only the unaffected side to be ventilated. B) The positive pressure accentuates movement of the thorax inward, reducing the movement of the fracture site and moving the flail segment with the chest. C) The positive pressure permanently inflates the flail segment in order to maximize oxygenation. D) The positive pressure displaces the thorax outward, reducing the movement of the fracture site and moving the flail segment with the chest.

Money a practice owes is referred to as:

a. credits. b. debits. c. accounts payable. d. accounts receivable.