A man has persistent fantasies about having sex with non-consenting people. Although he has not acted on them, these fantasies have lasted for almost a year and cause the man severe distress. What diagnosis is appropriate and why?
a. paraphilia, because the man is severely distressed by his fantasies even though he has not acted on them
b. no mental disorder, because unless the man acts on his fantasies, there is no form of sexual deviance
c. sexual dysfunction, because the man is not able to achieve sexual arousal normally
d. gender dysphoria, because the man has fantasies about having sex with non-consenting people
A
Psychology
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