What is the correct code for spina bifida, lumbar?

A 31-year-old male is complaining of left-side flank pain that radiates into his groin. He is alert and oriented and the primary assessment reveals no life-threatening conditions. Given the patient's status, your next step should be to:

A) gather medical information from the family. B) perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. C) obtain a medical history from the patient. D) repeat the primary assessment.

An antidiarrheal that is a schedule V controlled substance is:

A) Lomotil B) Dulcolax C) Axid D) Imodium