An increase in aggregate demand normally does not cause inflation

Do the real effects of aggregate demand shocks differ in the short run and long run in the Keynesian sticky-price model from the effects of these shocks in the classical model of perfectly flexible prices? Briefly explain

What will be an ideal response?

Because market price remains constant as a perfectly competitive firm expands output, each firm faces

a. a downward-sloping demand curve b. a horizontal demand curve c. constant returns to scale d. constant costs e. diminishing marginal revenue