If most of the people with high scores on a test are close to average on a retest, and most of those with low scores on the first test are also close to average on the retest, what if anything can we conclude?
a. The test has low reliability.
b. The test has high validity.
c. Scores on the test follow the normal distribution.
d. We can draw none of these conclusions.
a
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George is told by a psychologist that he "has some difficulties but is usually ab le to overcome
them, doesn't fully live up to his capabilities, and feels some hostility towards others but is quite good at not expressing this. " The fact that George perceives this to be a highly accurate description of his personality is probably an illustration of the A) Von Restorff effect. B) Barnum effect. C) Hawthorne effect. D) John Henry effect.
If two people rate the intensity of a taste as "7" on a 1-to-7 scale, can we conclude that they both had an equally intense experience? Why or why not?
What will be an ideal response?