Which of the following correctly explains why sellers in a perfectly competitive market are price takers?

a. There are few sellers, and so they have the power to take whatever price they want.
b. There are many sellers, and so the market process generates an equilibrium price that cannot be influenced by any one seller. Thus they have no choice but to take the price generated by the market process.
c. Sellers in a competitive market have the power to influence price by colluding with one another and using quotas to limit overall market output and thus raise price.
d. Individual buyers in a competitive market have the power to influence price, and thus can impose prices and other conditions on powerless sellers.

b

Economics

You might also like to view...

Which of the following is NOT part of the income used in the income approach to measuring GDP?

A) wages B) rent C) interest D) taxes paid by persons E) profit

Economics

The ratio at which a country can trade its exports for imports from other countries is called comparative advantage

Indicate whether the statement is true or false

Economics