Can you think of explanations beyond those discussed in the text for the relative decline of unionism in the United States?

What will be an ideal response?

The two discussed in the text were, first, the structural change in the labor force. It shifted from manufacturing, male-dominated jobs to more service jobs, to more part-time jobs, and to a larger proportion of jobs for females and youths. There was a shift in geographical location of industry from the north to the south. Included in this discussion was mention of the past successes of unionism that may have insured many of these benefits for nonunion workers. Second, the managerial opposition to unions has become more aggressive in opposing union organization.
Another explanation might pertain to both of the above-mentioned major reasons—that is, the increasing competition from abroad and the concern about labor productivity. Workers may have become less aggressive in an atmosphere of job insecurity where the threat of foreign competition prevents them from demanding too much. Employers may have become more aggressive in terms of wanting to keep wages low and work forces flexible in times of uncertain profits.
Finally, there is the argument that government now sponsors or provides many of the functions which were traditionally promoted by unions, e.g., unemployment compensation, anti discrimination legislation, and so on. Therefore, there is less of a need for unions.